Find out the fallacy
Here I'm going to prove that 1 = 2
Let's assume. a = b ..........(1)
Then, evidently, ab=b²
Subtracting b² from both sides, we get,
ab - b² = a² - b², Now factoring we get
b(a - b) = (a +b) (a - b), dividing both sides by
( a-b ), we get, b = a + b, But according to equation (1) a = b
Therefore b = 2b
Dividing both sides by 'b', we have the required result 1= 2
This is impossible, right ??
Find out the FALLACY.
1 comment:
cannot divide by (a-b) i.e., 0
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